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Old 12-12-2002   #25
-= JR =-
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TheEnforcer, you are arguing specifically, that President Reagan "controlled" the Republican party and the Senate (2/3 of the Government and decision making process) and made a false argument that the President has the final say on any issue via his veto powers.

now you are using the word "influence"
you were using the word which is pretty absolute - "control"

if President Reagan "controlled" the Senate as you kept stating, his own party would not have voted overwhelmingly to override his veto would they?

that FACT in itself pretty much proves that he in fact does not "control" anything except the President.

if you want to argue that the President has "influence" over his own party... i would agree. Though i would suggest that it is hardly something that can be quantified. However, that is not what you were saying was it? Instead, you keep taking a different stance, while putting words in my mouth and changing your argument(s).

is the "president partly to blame" as you asked? uhm... again... Yes. Wasn't i saying that all parties are to blame?

i guess i keep missing your point if there is one.
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